Post by gnosticbishop on Sept 10, 2014 16:19:57 GMT
Why was Adam exempt from the transgression when the transgression was disobedience?
"Let the women learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression." (I Timothy 2:11-14)
I think that Adam, not being deceived, was more culpable than Eve.
Why then did God favor the guiltiest, Adam, with, --- he shall rule over you?
Men rule over women? Why when men were not deceived but disobeyed?
What was the transgression, --- if not a wise decision to choose knowledge and wisdom and shun immortality of the flesh, --- even if that were possible, --- and why was Adan not punished as hard as Eve when he was clearly more guilty?
Regards
DL
"Let the women learn in silence with all subjection. But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence. For Adam was first formed, then Eve. And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression." (I Timothy 2:11-14)
I think that Adam, not being deceived, was more culpable than Eve.
Why then did God favor the guiltiest, Adam, with, --- he shall rule over you?
Men rule over women? Why when men were not deceived but disobeyed?
What was the transgression, --- if not a wise decision to choose knowledge and wisdom and shun immortality of the flesh, --- even if that were possible, --- and why was Adan not punished as hard as Eve when he was clearly more guilty?
Regards
DL