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Post by sociohist on Mar 4, 2013 14:13:52 GMT
I study in sociology and am particularly interested in the status of who held power over universities and natural philosophy in the Middle Ages. I enjoyed reading John Hannam's 'God's Philosophers'. In it, he indicates that the "new universities in western Europe enjoyed a special kind of status that made them effectively independent" (2009:74). He adds that the corporations universities created were "not beholden to princes and bishops" (2009:74). Yet he also refers to "Church-sponsored universities" where the Church is the rich sponsor to natural philosophy. For the latter, Church control over science communication is amply demonstrated in the text.
How can I reconcile these opposing dynamics? Is it the number of universities that were under Church sponsorship? Is it a question of periods when such sponsorship existed? What is sponsorship in this instance? Is there a tally to look to? I am not a historian, so I look forward to your insights!
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Post by himself on Mar 7, 2013 0:42:18 GMT
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labarum
Master of the Arts
Posts: 122
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Post by labarum on Mar 8, 2013 15:09:24 GMT
I study in sociology and am particularly interested in the status of who held power over universities and natural philosophy in the Middle Ages. I enjoyed reading John Hannam's 'God's Philosophers'. In it, he indicates that the "new universities in western Europe enjoyed a special kind of status that made them effectively independent" (2009:74). He adds that the corporations universities created were "not beholden to princes and bishops" (2009:74). Yet he also refers to "Church-sponsored universities" where the Church is the rich sponsor to natural philosophy. For the latter, Church control over science communication is amply demonstrated in the text. How can I reconcile these opposing dynamics? Is it the number of universities that were under Church sponsorship? Is it a question of periods when such sponsorship existed? What is sponsorship in this instance? Is there a tally to look to? I am not a historian, so I look forward to your insights! I think part of the answer lies in the fact that many of those teaching in these institutions, and perhaps the institutions themselves, were under the jurisdiction of orders such as the Franciscans, Dominicans, etc. and not the local diocese. There is a history of infighting between the authorities of the diocesan structure and the teaching orders and this may have played a role here.
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Post by sociohist on Mar 12, 2013 11:10:49 GMT
Thank you himself and Iabarum, your insights are much appreciated. I will follow-up on these leads.
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